We'll continue with the example from last time of computing the \( \vec{g} \)-field on the \( z \) axis above a thin uniform disk:
Last time we found \( g_x = g_y = 0 \), both by symmetry and explicitly. Now let's move on to the non-zero part of the field, \( g_z \). Since we've already gone through the details of the setup for \( x \), it should be easy to see that
\[ \begin{aligned} g_z = -G \sigma \int_0^{2\pi} d\phi' \int_0^R d\rho' \frac{\rho' z}{(\rho'^2 + z^2)^{3/2}} \\ = -2\pi G \sigma z \int_0^R \frac{d\rho' \rho'}{(\rho'^2 + z^2)^{3/2}}. \end{aligned} \]
This is actually a very friendly integral for \( u \)-substitution! Let's pick \( u = \rho'^2 + z^2 \), which gives \( du = 2\rho' d\rho' \). Then
\[ \begin{aligned} g_z = -2\pi G \sigma z \int_{z^2}^{R^2 + z^2} \frac{du/2}{u^{3/2}} \\ = -\pi G \sigma z \left( \left. -\frac{2}{u^{1/2}} \right|_{z^2}^{R^2+z^2} \right) \\ = 2\pi G \sigma z \left( \frac{1}{\sqrt{R^2 + z^2}} - \frac{1}{|z|} \right). \\ \end{aligned} \]
We could replace the density \( \sigma \) with the total mass \( M \); since it's a two-dimensional density, we have \( M = \sigma \pi R^2 \). But there's no normalizing \( 1/M \) like there is for the center of mass, so for this calculation it's fine to just leave it in terms of \( \sigma \) in general.
Given the result:
\[ \begin{aligned} g_z = 2\pi G \sigma z \left( \frac{1}{\sqrt{R^2 + z^2}} - \frac{1}{|z|} \right) \end{aligned} \]
Which way does the gravitational field point (i.e. what is the sign of \( g_z \)?)
A. \( \vec{g} \) always points up (\( g_z > 0 \)).
B. \( \vec{g} \) always points down (\( g_z < 0 \)).
C. \( \vec{g} \) always points towards the disk.
D. \( \vec{g} \) always points away from the disk.
E. It points down for positive \( z \), and this formula isn't valid for negative \( z \).
Answer: C
Since \( \sqrt{R^2 + z^2} > |z| \) always, we have (1/big - 1/small) so the whole field is proportional to \( -z \). This makes sense - the direction of the field, and thus of the gravitational force \( \vec{F} = m\vec{g} \) on a test mass, always points towards the disk at \( z=0 \).
What is the correct expression for the field as we get very close to the disk, \( z \rightarrow 0 \)?
A. \( g_z = 2\pi G \sigma \frac{z}{R} \)
B. \( g_z = -2\pi G \sigma \)
C. \( g_z = \pm 2\pi G \sigma \), with \( - \) for \( z > 0 \)
D. \( g_z = \pm 2\pi G \sigma \frac{z}{R} \), with \( + \) for \( z > 0 \)
E. \( g_z = \pm 2\pi G \sigma \frac{z}{R} \), with \( - \) for \( z > 0 \)
Answer: C
As \( z \rightarrow 0 \), approaching the disk, we have
\[ \begin{aligned} g_z \rightarrow 2\pi G \sigma z \left( \frac{1}{R} - \frac{1}{|z|} \right) \approx -2\pi G \sigma \frac{z}{|z|} \end{aligned} \]
which is a constant - the fraction \( z/|z| \) just gives us either +1 above the disk or -1 below it, ensuring that the field points towards the disk. This makes sense: if we get arbitrarily close to the disk, from our perspective it will look just like standing on a very large flat surface, from which we would expect just a constant gravity field pointing "down".
The other limit to consider is \( z \rightarrow \infty \). This means that \( z \gg R \), which we can use to series expand the first term in the field:
\[ \begin{aligned} \frac{1}{\sqrt{R^2 + z^2}} = \frac{1}{|z|} \frac{1}{\sqrt{1 + (R/z)^2}} \end{aligned} \]
Let's use the binomial formula to expand,
\[ \begin{aligned} (1+z)^n = 1 + nz + \frac{n(n-1)}{2} z^2 + ... \end{aligned} \]
which leads to, just keeping the first two terms,
\[ \begin{aligned} \frac{1}{\sqrt{R^2 + z^2}} \approx \frac{1}{|z|} \left(1 - \frac{R^2}{2z^2} + ... \right) \end{aligned} \]
The \( 1/|z| \) terms cancel off, and we're left with
\[ \begin{aligned} g_z \rightarrow 2\pi G \sigma \frac{z}{|z|} \left( -\frac{R^2}{2z^2} + ... \right) \end{aligned} \]
Now it's useful to substitute in \( M = \pi R^2 \sigma \), which will absorb the \( R^2 \) factor and leave us with
\[ \begin{aligned} g_z \rightarrow -\frac{GM}{z^2} \frac{z}{|z|} \end{aligned} \]
or \( \vec{g} = -GM/z^2 \hat{r} \), along the \( z \)-axis. So in this limit, the leading dependence on \( R \) vanishes and we just recover the single point-particle form of the gravitational field! This makes a lot of sense: if we're really, really far away from the disk, then the fact that it's an extended object doesn't really matter - in fact, from far enough away we probably wouldn't be able to tell that it has any radius, we would just see a point.
So far, we haven't really used the fact that gravity is a conservative force. In fact, being able to write a potential energy function \( U(\vec{r}) \) can actually save us a lot of work when dealing with extended objects! Recall that the potential energy for a single test mass \( m \) in the gravity field of a source mass \( M \) is
\[ \begin{aligned} U(r) = -\frac{GMm}{r}. \end{aligned} \]
What if we have multiple sources? I'll skip the detailed derivation, but the answer is that we can simply add the potential energies: for example, in the following situation
we just have
\[ \begin{aligned} U(\vec{r}) = -\frac{GM_1 m}{|\vec{r} - \vec{R}_1|} - \frac{GM_2 m}{|\vec{r} - \vec{R}_2|}. \end{aligned} \]
It's straightforward to see that taking \( \vec{F}_g = -\vec{\nabla} U \), where \( \vec{\nabla} \) is the gradient with respect to the \( \vec{r} \) coordinates, adding the potentials like this is equivalent to adding the gravitational forces together.
One more definition before we continue: like the force, the potential energy depends on the test mass \( m \), but in a very trivial way. It's often useful to factor out the \( m \) so we can calculate a function that only depends on the sources, which we can then apply to any test mass (or collection of test masses.) So just like we defined \( \vec{F}_g = m\vec{g} \), we now define the gravitational potential for a point source to be
\[ \begin{aligned} \Phi(r) = -\frac{GM}{r} \end{aligned} \]
so that \( U(r) = m\Phi(r) \). We can immediately see that \( \vec{g} = -\vec{\nabla} \Phi \), so this gives us another way to find the gravitational field. Potential is an unfortunate name for this quantity - keep in mind that \( \Phi \) is not a potential energy, it has the wrong units! This is completely analogous to the electric potential \( V(r) \), which is also not a potential energy - but the combination \( qV \) is.
Now if we have an extended object, as we saw before:
then the potential at position \( \vec{r} \) due to the infinitesmal source \( dm \) is
\[ \begin{aligned} d\Phi(\vec{r}) = -\frac{G dm}{s} = -\frac{G dm}{|\vec{r} - \vec{r}'|}, \end{aligned} \]
and thus the total potential is
\[ \begin{aligned} \Phi(\vec{r}) = -G \int \frac{dV' \rho(\vec{r}')}{|\vec{r} - \vec{r}'|}. \end{aligned} \]
This is much nicer to evaluate than the integrals we had to do for \( \vec{g} \)! Now we have no vector components to worry about - just a single scalar quantity. We can then take the gradient of our result (with respect to \( \vec{r} \)) to find the gravitational field \( \vec{g} \).
Let's do an example to see how this approach works in practice.
Consider a thin circular ring of mass \( M \) and radius \( a \), with uniform linear mass density \( \lambda \). What is the gravitational potential along the \( z \)-axis?
It's always a good idea to begin with a sketch:
To make sure we're approaching the potential integral the right way, let's start by setting up the simpler integral for the total mass of the ring:
\[ \begin{aligned} M = \int dm = \int ds' \lambda(\vec{r}'). \end{aligned} \]
The coordinate setup will be the same as for the potential, but the result is much easier. Once again, cylindrical coordinates look like a good match for this problem. Given the radius \( a \) of the ring, we can write an infinitesmal length segment along the ring as
\[ \begin{aligned} ds' = a d\phi' \end{aligned} \]
using the definition of arc length for a circle. (This can also be thought of as a parametrization of the "path" around the circle, similar to what we did for line integration.) Plugging back in to the integral, we have
\[ \begin{aligned} M = \int_0^{2\pi} d\phi' a \lambda = 2\pi a \lambda \end{aligned} \]
or \( \lambda = M / (2\pi a) \). This makes sense, since \( 2\pi a \) is the circumference of the circle, and dividing the total mass by the length should give us the density when it's uniform (as it is here.)